Subject: Kant's Theory of "Noumena" vs. "Phenomena"
From: "William J. Rapaport" <rapaport@buffalo.edu>
Date: Wed, 27 Jan 2010 11:19:58 -0500 (EST)

Several of you have asked for clarification of Kant's theory of
"noumena" (things as they are in themselves, independent of our
concepts and sensations) and "phenomena" (things as we perceive or
understand them in terms of our concepts and sensations).

Here are some online sources:

Grier, Michelle, "Kant's Critique of Metaphysics", The Stanford
Encyclopedia of Philosophy (Summer 2009 Edition), Edward N. Zalta (ed.),
URL =
http://plato.stanford.edu/archives/sum2009/entries/kant-metaphysics/

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Noumenon
espcially the section on "Kant's Usage: Overview"

"Kantian transcendental idealism"
Routledge Encyclopedia of Philosophy
http://www.rep.routledge.com/article/N027SECT3?ssid=735315951&n=1#
second paragraph

The best and shortest (but by no means the easiest!) introduction to
Kant's philosophy is:

Kant, Immanuel (1783), Prolegomena to Any Future Metaphysics
http://www.mnstate.edu/gracyk/courses/phil%20306/kant_materials/prolegomena1.htm